But let us start this way, the questionnaire is online and this was one of the questions that was asked:
National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey (NISVS) 2011 victimization questions
When you were drunk, high, drugged, or passed out and unable to consent, how many people have ever … had vaginal sex with you? By vaginal sex, we mean that {if female: a man or boy put his penis in your vagina} {if male: a woman or girl made you put your penis in her vagina}.
Essentially, they asked men and women the same question, right? And honestly who would argue that in that scenario a woman has been raped, but a man not. Answer: The CDC
Prevalence and Characteristics of Sexual Violence, Stalking, and Intimate Partner Violence Victimization — National Intimate Partner and Sexual Violence Survey, United States, 2011
Surveillance Summaries
September 5, 2014
[...] an estimated 1.6% of women reported that they were raped in the 12 months preceding the survey. The case count for men reporting rape in the preceding 12 months was too small to produce a statistically reliable prevalence estimate. An estimated 43.9% of women and 23.4% of men experienced other forms of sexual violence during their lifetimes, including being made to penetrate, sexual coercion, unwanted sexual contact, and noncontact unwanted sexual experiences. The percentages of women and men who experienced these other forms of sexual violence victimization in the 12 months preceding the survey were an estimated 5.5% and 5.1%, respectively.
Table 1:
Women Rape in the last 12 months: 1.6%
Men Made to Penetrate in the last 12 months: 1.7%
So if you answered yes to the above question and you are a woman, this would have counted as rape, whereas if you are a man, that would have counted as not rape, but other sexual violence -> made to penetrate.
I am not sure if I have to spell it out for you. But what is going on here is the CDC spinning their data to sweep male rape victims under the rug. Like they did last year. And this time, there is a higher percentage of male rape victims than female ones in the last 12 months. I have no clue how one could read it any other way. Besides that, this study is so similar to the last one that my last analysis should still be spot on.
Anyone, realizing this should be astound and there should be follow up studies on why that is and why the male lifetime number differs so much from the female one (if I add made to penetrate to the male rape number and compare it with the female one I get 19.9 / 8.4 which roughly means 1/3 of all rape victims are male, however if I add those numbers together I might count some victims twice, so it is just an estimate which I shouldn't have to do if the CDC would be doing it's goddamn job). What the CDC is doing instead: "The case count for men reporting rape in the preceding 12 months was too small to produce a statistically reliable prevalence estimate."
Thank you very much. Fuckheads.
I also tried to find out what Feminists are saying about all of this but the only blog I found reporting it was Jezebel and they just repeated the numbers from the overview and had a ton of comments about how MRAs would cry about this CDC report. Not a good comment section, but you see how the way the CDC reports it data influences the way blogs / magazines write about data. It is all very sad.
